Some important links that you will find useful

• http://www.yuvajobs.com/BEL_placement_paper.asp

• http://www.placementpapers.net/helpingroot/BEL/BEL_Placement_Paper

• http://www.specialtest.in/bel2011/detailsadv.htm#norms

• http://placementpapers.net/helpingroot/BEL/BEL-Placement-Paper-Pattern-On-May-2008-Objective-and-Electronics

• http://placementpapers.net/helpingroot/BEL_Interview_Probationary_Engineer

• http://placementpapers.net/helpingroot/BEL/BEL-Placement-Paper-Technical-Electronics-V

• http://www.mypdfsearch.com/search-pdf/bel+exam+syllabus+2010+ELECTRONICS/

• http://entrance-exam.net/forum/general-discussion/bel-sample-papers-syllabus-23091.html

Interview

BEL, Interview for Probationary Engineer, Bangalore

The interview for Probationary Engineer at BEL, Bangalore . 21st August, 2004

Its for CSE stream. Interview lasts for 40 minutes. As I have to face my ever first Job interview, am with little bit anxiety. Here are the details of the interview I would like to share with these magnificent group friends.As I entered in to the room by asking excuse me Sir, They invited me very politely and offered a chair to seat. There were four members in the panel all were in age group of 50, of which two members are from Central Research Laboratory of BEL grilled out me with tech questions. One is HR department person and remained was acts as head of the panel.

First the head of the panel introduced all the members and explained the procedure of the interview. First he starts by describing about the company for almost five minutes, which makes me to relax and comfortable with the panel. After that he asked to tell about myself briefly for a minute.

While I am in a way of describing myself, he also asked to point out the achievements, strong points, hobbies and regarding sports. Also asked for favorite subjects, and I told that C, Database and Networks are my favorites.Now it?s the time for technical grilling..The first person from CRL starts by asking

What are the components of LAN?

How do u connects the systems?

What is UTP? (Unshielded Twisted Pair)

How much distance it supports?

Fiber optic supports how much distance?(I don?t know exactly?)

What is the throughput of the Ethernet LAN?

Describe about OSI Layers?

In which layer encryption can be done? And other than presentation layer?

What is the function of Bridge? Router?

Which layer is responsible for end 2 end connection?

What is RAID? (Redundant Array of Inexpensive Disks)

For what it is used for?

How can achieve fault tolerance through RAID?

Where the Static variable stored in C?



And local variables?( I was made a mistake here by telling it is also in heap)

And he shows already written function prototypes asked to describe it.. as
int *(*p)(int a, float b) // pointer 2 the function p returns integer pointer
int (*p)(int *a, float b) //pointer 2 the function p returns integer
int *p(int a, float *b) // function p returns integer pointer
int p(int a, float *b) // function p returns integer
now he looks as impressed and asked

how to return 1000 variables from a function in C?

Now seen changes to second person of CRL

He asked to explain about my project? (It lasts for 4 minutes)

What are the functions of the OS?

Which OS you are familiar with?

What is the process?

What r its attributes?

How the process interacts with each others?

What r the mechanisms for inter process communication?

What is semaphore?

What is critical region?

How can semaphore avoid conflicts?

Again first person starts asking

What is a virtual function?

What is late binding?

What is scope resolution operator?

Differentiate between testing and debugging? (here I take time 2 distinguish )

Distinguish black box testing and white box testing?

What is unit testing?

How can u control the lost acknowledgement issue?

Is there is any difference between switch and hub? Which is good? ( here again I wasn?t answered properly)

And some more questions I wasn?t reminded correctly..

After that head of the panel gestures to HR to ask questions

What do u prefer to be a team leader or team member?

What r the qualities u have for being a leader?

How can u solve the conflicts in a team?

How can u react if some one else competing with u in ur

team for promotion?

Again head asks me

What is your reaction if some one copying in the exam?Can u tell me a instance in your college that insists your leadership attitude?

Have u ever short tempered?

Have u attended any interviews?

Is u don?t have campus?

And he gestures to HR to explain pay and bond details

He told that first 6 months will be the training period after that for three years u will be appointed as probationary engineer, and also told that based on our performance promotion will be carried out early or late.

For this probationary engineer u can draw 2.65 laks per anum with all allowances, and u have to execute a bond of Rs50000/- for three years effects from date of appointment
after training.

And now head asks for any questions from me. I was asked the same qns

What is the career path?

When can I know the results?

Placement paper

BEL Placement Paper (Technical- Electronics V)

1. VSWR on a transmission line is always
1. Equal to 1
2. Equal to 0
3. Less than 1
4. Greater than 1
2. In a amplitude modulated wave, the value of Vmax is 10V and Vmin is 5V. The % modulation in this case is:
1. 2% b. 33.3% c. 50% d. 100%
3. The signal to noise ratio at the input of an amplifier can be improved:
1. By decrease the source impedance or resistance
2. By increasing the source impedance
3. By matching the source impedance with the input impedance of the amplifier
4. None of these
4. If the bandwidth of an amplifier is reduced, the thermal noise in the amplifier will:
1. Increase
2. Decrease
3. Not to be affected at all
4. Become random in nature
5. For the distortion to be minimum in a transmission line at audio frequencies, the condition is
1. L = CR / G
2. L = GR / C
3. LG = R
4. LR = G
6. When electromagnetic waves are propagated in a waveguide
1. They travel along the broader walls of the waveguide
2. They travel through the dielectric without touching the wall
3. They are reflected from the walls but they do not travel along them
4. None of these
7. Communication between satellite and ground station is through
1. Tropospheric scatter
2. Ground wave
3. Sky wave
4. Line of sight propagation
8. A mast antenna is used mainly for
1. UHF
2. Short wave
3. Medium wave
4. VHF
9. A crystal which has a sensitivity of -55 dBm with 1 MHz BW amplifier will have a sensitivity at 4 MHz BW amplifier equal to:
1. -55 dBm b. -58 dBm c. -52 dBm d. -60 dBm
10. Electromagnetic waves are refracted when they
1. Pass into a medium of different dielectric constant
2. Are polarized at right angles to the direction of propagation
3. Encounter a perfectly conducting surface
4. Pass through a small slot in a conducting medium
11. An aerial is fed from an amplitude modulation amplifier. Both the modulating voltage and modulated voltage are sinusoidal. The aerial current (rms) before modulation is 5 A and it increases to 5.8A after modulation. The percentage of modulation index will be
1. 88% b. 80% c. 81.21% d. 83.14%
12. In a frequency demodulation, Foster-Seeley discriminator uses a
1. Single tuned circuit
2. Double tuned circuit in which both the primary and secondary are tuned to the same frequency
3. Double tuned circuit in which both the primary and secondary are tuned to to different frequencies
4. Combination of two transistors in push-pull operation
13. The wavelength of an electromagnetic wave in wave guide
1. Is directly proportional to the phase velocity
2. Is inversely proportional to the phase velocity
3. Is greater than that in free space
4. Depends only on the wave guide dimensions and the free space wavelength
14. The scale used for moving coil meter is
1. Non-linear scale
2. Linear scale
3. A square scale
4. A log scale
15. To double the circuit range of a 50 mA, 2000W meter movement, the shunt resistance requires is
1. 40W b. 50W c. 2000W d. 25KW
16. A voltmeter utilizes a 20 mA meter movement. The sensitivity of the voltmeter is
1. 50 meg ohms per volt
2. 20 K ohms per volt
3. 50 kilo ohms per volt
4. 20 meg ohms per volt
17. A transformer, with a 20 : 1 voltage step-down ratio has 6V across 0.6 ohm in the secondary, then Is and Ip given by
1. 10A, 5A
2. 5A, 10A
3. 10A, 0.5A
4. 1A, 0.5A
18. The temperature coefficient of resistance of a resistor is
1. Negative
2. Positive
3. Zero
4. Infinity
19. To prevent loading of the circuit under test, the input impedance of the oscilloscope
1. Be low
2. Be high
3. Capacitive
4. Inductive
20. If the retrace is visible on the CRT display, then the trouble may be that
1. The fly back time of the time base saw tooth wave is not zero
2. The blanking control is not set properly
3. There is loss of SYNC signal
4. The intensity is too high
21. The lissajous pattern on CRO for two sinusoidal of frequency ratio 1 : 2 differing in phase by 90 degrees, is
1. A straight line
2. A circle
3. An ellipse
4. An eight-shaped
22. When an electron starts from rest under the influence of electric and magnetic fields perpendicular to each other, the path traversed by it will be
1. Ellipse
2. A parabola
3. Straight line
4. A cycloid
23. Frequency multipliers are usually
1. Class A amplifiers
2. Class B amplifiers
3. Class C amplifiers
4. Class AB amplifiers
24. The feedback network of a phase shift oscillator is usually consists of
1. RC circuit
2. RL circuit
3. LC circuit
4. C alone
25. Common base amplifier is most suitable for use in
1. Very high frequency circuits
2. Low frequency circuits
3. Medium frequency circuits
4. Low current circuits
26. If two amplifiers having identical bandwidth are cascaded, then the bandwidth of the resulting amplifier will be
1. Less than that of each stage
2. Greater than that of each stage
3. Same as that of each stage
4. Double of each stage
27. Which one of the following amplifier has largest bandwidth
1. RC coupled amplifier
2. Difference amplifier
3. Transformer coupled amplifier
4. Direct coupled amplifier
28. In an amplifier, the emitter resistance by passed by a capacitor
1. Reduces the voltage gain
2. Increases the voltage gain
3. Causes thermal run away
4. None of these
29. The term free running is usually associated with
1. Bistable multivibrator
2. Astable multivibrator
3. Monostable multivibrator
4. None of these
30. The signal fed at the input of an ideal push-pull amplifier has frequency components 150Hz’ 300Hz, 450Hz and 600Hz. The output signal will contain
1. Only 150 Hz frequency component
2. Only 150 Hz and 450 Hz frequency component
3. Only 300 Hz and 600 Hz frequency components
4. All the frequency components
31. For which of the following configuration [s] does the input resistance of the amplifier depend strongly on the load resistance
1. CE b.CC c. CB d. CE and CB
32. An important advantage of the RC coupling scheme is
1. Economy
2. Excellent frequency reponse
3. High efficiency
4. Good impedance matching
33. The AC input to transistor oscillator is obtained from
1. The previous stage
2. A signal generator
3. DC power source
4. Its own internal circuit
34. The low frequency cut-off in an amplifier is due to
1. Only coupling capacitor
2. Only bypass capacitor
3. Both coupling and bypass capacitors
4. The internal transistor junction capacitances
35. In a half-wave rectifier the peak value of AC voltage across the secondary of the transformer is 20/2 V. If no filter circuit is used, the maximum DC voltage across the load will be
1. 28.28V b. 20V c. 14.14V d. None of these
36. Heat sinks ate used in a transistor working as power amplifier so as to
1. Increase the output power
2. Reduce the heat losses in toe transistors
3. Increase the voltage gain of the amplifier
4. Increase the collector dissipation rating of the transistors
37. In a power amplifier, the output power is proportional to
1. Vi b. Vi2 c. Vi3 d. Ö Vi
38. At half power frequencies the reduction in voltage gain of an amplifier equals
1. 6 dB b. 2 dB c. 3 dB d. 4 dB
39. the frequency of the ripple voltage at the output of a bridge rectifier operating from a 50 Hz supply is
1. 25Hz b. 50 Hz c. 100 Hz d. 200 Hz
40. Darlington pair is used for
1. High current gain
2. High power gain
3. High frequency operation
4. Low distortion
41. The function of a bleeder resistor in a power supply is
1. Same as that of a load resistor
2. To ensure a minimum current drain in the circuit
3. To increase the output current
4. To increase the output DC voltage
42. A JFET has a potential divider bias arrangement. By mistake the resistor between the gap and the power supply terminal is removed. The JFET will
1. Continue to work as an amplifier
2. Have a forward bias gate with respect to source
3. Not work as an amplifier but will work as a switch
4. Immediately burn out
43. The ripple factor of half-wave rectifier is
1. 0.482 b. 1.11 c. 1.21 d. 1.57
44. In the high frequency region of an RC coupled amplifier the circuit behave like a
1. Differentiator
2. A current amplifier
3. Low pass filter
4. High pass filter
45. Astable multivibrator can be used as
1. Squaring circuit
2. Comparator circuit
3. Voltage to frequency converter
4. Frequency of voltage converter
46. If the gain of the amplifier as A and the voltage feed back is fraction B of the amplifier output voltage, the condition for maintenance of oscillation is
1. AB = 1 180o
2. AB = infinity
3. AB = 1 0o
4. AB < < 1
47. Nominal gain of an amplifier is 240. The noise level in the output without feed back is 300 mV. If a feed back Beta = 1/ 60 used, the noise level in the output will be
1. 1.66 mV b. 2.4mV c. 4mV d. 20mV
48. A zener diode is primarily used for
1. Rectification
2. Producing constant current
3. Producing constant voltage
4. Reverse bias
49. Cross over distortion is eliminated in a push-pull amplifier by
1. Using a transformer with a large step-up ratio
2. Using a transformer with a large step-down ratio
3. Providing a small forward bias to the transistors
4. Supplying both transistors with inphase signals
50. When a PNP transistor is saturated
1. Its base, emitter, and collector are all essentially at the same potential
2. Its emitter is at higher potential than the collector
3. Its collector is at higher potential than both base & emitter
4. None
51. For a RC high pass circuit
1. RC < < t
2. RC > > t
3. RC = t
4. None
52. An inverter is an equipment for transforming
1. AC to DC
2. AC to AC
3. DC to DC
4. DC to AC
53. Suppose you wish to amplify the potential difference between two points in a circuit when neither of these points is grounded. Which one the following will you prefer?
1. RC coupled amplifier
2. Transformer coupled amplifier
3. Difference amplifier
4. Direct coupled amplifier
54. In an emitter follower, the output voltage is
1. 180o out of phase from the input voltage
2. 90o out of phase from the input voltage
3. in phase with the input voltage
4. None
55. A silicon controlled rectifier can be considered to be:
1. Two pnp transistor connected back to back
2. Two npn transistor connected back to back
3. One npn and one pnp transistor connected back to back
4. Two zener diodes connected back to back
56. A rf signal contains three frequency components 870 KHz, 875 KHz 880 KHz. This signal needs to be amplified. The amplifier used should be
1. Audio frequency amplifier
2. Wide band amplifier
3. Push pull amplifier
4. None
57. In the emitter follower circuit
1. The output current and voltage are inphase with the input current and voltage respectively
2. The input and output impedances are equal
3. There is current series negative feedback
4. The output impedance is much higher than the input impedance
58. The frequency response of a system is the range of frequencies between the upper and lower
1. 1 dB points
2. 6 dB points
3. 3 dB points
4. None
59. In a class C amplifier the output current is zero for
1. Half cycle
2. Full cycle
3. Less than half cycle
4. More than half cycle
60. When RL [load resistance] equals the internal resistance of a generator, which of the following is maximum:
1. Power in RL
2. Current through RL
3. Voltage across RL
4. Efficiency of the circuit
61. negative feedback in an amplifier results in:
1. increased gain and increased bandwidth
2. increased gain and reduced bandwidth
3. reduced gain and increased bandwidth
4. reduced gain and reduced bandwidth
62. A class B push-pull amplifier suffers from
1. Cross-over distortion
2. Excessive harmonic distortion
3. Inter modulation distortion
4. None
63. An oscillator of the LC type that has split capacitor in the tank circuit is
1. Hartely oscillator
2. Wein bridge oscillator
3. Colpitts oscillator
4. None
64. Clamping circuits are also known as
1. AC restorer
2. DC restorer
3. Voltage to frequency converter
4. None
65. Which of the following has the greater mobility
1. Positive ion
2. Negative ion
3. Electrons
4. Holes
66. An N type semiconductor as a whole is
1. Positively charged
2. Electrically neutral
3. Negatively charged
4. None
67. In a semiconductor, the forbidden energy gap is of the order
1. 1 ev b. 6 ev c. 7 ev d. 0.1 ev
68. In LED, light is emitted because
1. Recombination of charges take place
2. We make the light fall on LED
3. Diode emits light when heated
4. None
69. UJT is also called
1. A voltage controlled device
2. A current controlled device
3. A relaxation oscillator
4. None
70. The transistor configuration which provides higher output impedance is
1. CC b. CB c. CE d. None
71. Tunnel diodes are fabricated from
1. Silicon
2. Germanium
3. Either silicon or germanium
4. Either germanium or gallium
72. N channel FETs are superior to P channel FETs because
1. They have a higher input impedance
2. They have a high switching time
3. They consume less power
4. Mobility of electrons is greater than that of holes
73. Diac is a solid state device which works as a
1. 2 terminal bidirectional switch
2. 2 terminal unilateral switch
3. 3 terminal bidirectional switch
4. None
74. Triac is a solid device which works as a
1. 2 terminal bidirectional switch
2. 3 terminal bidirectional switch
3. 4 terminal bidirectional switch
4. 2 terminal unilateral switch
75. Compared to a CB amplifier, a CE amplifier has
1. Lower input resistance
2. Higher output resistance
3. Lower current amplification
4. Higher current amplification
76. The input and output signals of a common emitter amplifier are:
1. Always equal
2. Out of phase
3. In phase
4. Always negative
77. The operation of a JEET involves
1. A flow of minority carriers
2. A flow of majority carriers
3. Recombination
4. Negative resistance
78. Solar cell is an example of a
1. Photo conductive device
2. Photo emissive device
3. Photo voltage device
4. None
79. Bretters and bolometers are used in the measurement of
1. Microwave power
2. VSWR
3. Transmission losses
4. None
80. A klystron operates on the principle of
1. Velocity modulation
2. Amplitude modulation
3. Pulse modulation
4. Frequency modulation
81. The unit of the amplification factor of a triode is
1. Decibels
2. Volt
3. Neper
4. None
82. A change in base current from 30 to 40 mA changes the collector current from 500 to 900 mA. The B factor for this power transistor equals
1. 900 b. 500 c. 3 d. 40
83. The field effect transistor can be used as
1. Variable capacitance
2. A constant voltage source
3. A variable resistance
4. A constant current source
84. Why NPN transistor are preferred over PNP transistor
1. NPN transistor have low heat dissipation
2. NPN transistor can handle large power
3. NPN transistor are cheap and easily available
4. None
85. The germanium transistors are seldom used above
1. 60oC b. 75oC c. 125oC d. 175oC
86. In a FET the drain voltage above which there is no increase in the drain current is called
1. Pick off voltage
2. Critical voltage
3. Pinch off voltage
4. Break down voltage
87. A reflex klystron has
1. Only one cavity working both as the buncher & the catcher
2. Two cavities one for buncher and one for the catcher
3. Three cavities, two for buncher and one for catcher
4. No cavity at all
88. Bipolar junction transistors are seldom used as switching devices because
1. BJTs are not economical fro using as switching devices
2. They can handle only high voltage but not high currents
3. They need separate circuits when used as switching device
4. Of slow response and inability to withstand high voltage
89. The voltage at which the electron flow starts from the anode is called
1. Break down voltage
2. Peak inverse voltage
3. Peak voltage
4. Pinch off voltage
90. The heater filament of a vacuum tube is generally supplied with AC voltage (and not DC voltage) for heating because
1. It results in a uniform heating of filament so that the electron emission also uniform
2. It is very easy to obtain AC voltage from AC power mains
3. The DC voltage that would be required for heating has much greater magnitude than the AC voltage
4. When DC is used for heating, a different type of filament is required which very expensive
91. The dopant used for P type semiconductor is
1. Phosphorous
2. Boron
3. Carbon
4. Sodium
92. An example of negative resistance characteristic device
1. BJT b. MOSFET c. UJT d. PINdiode
93. The average DC voltage obtained from a bridge rectifier with a sine wave input V sin wt is
1. V / 2 b. 2V c. 4V d. V
94. The maximum theoretical efficiency of a class B amplifier is
1. About 20%
2. About 50%
3. About 75%
4. 100%
95. A cascade amplifier is
1. A CE amplifier followed by CC amplifier
2. A CE amplifier followed by CB amplifier
3. A CC amplifier followed by CB amplifier
4. A CB amplifier followed by CE amplifier
96. Toggle switches can be debounced using
1. Astable multivibrator
2. Shift register
3. RS flip flop
4. None
97. A band pass filter has a centre frequency at 5 KHz. The 3 dB cut off frequencies are 4.5 KHz and 5.5 KHz. The Q factor of the filter is
1. 5 b. 0.2 c. 5.2 d. 0.45
98. The domestic buzzer makes use of
1. Hall effect
2. Tunneling effect
3. Natural resonance
4. Piezoelectric effect
99. The device which uses avalanche breakdown is
1. PIN diode
2. Zener diode
3. Impart diode
4. GUNN diode
100. The correct relation between Alpha and Beta of a transistor is
1. a / b-1 b.b=a-1 c. b = a / 1-a d. a = b + 1/ b

BEL Placement Paper Pattern On May 2008

BEL Placement Paper Pattern On May 2008 (Objective and Electronics)

Here i have given some of the questions of the written paper (ECE)… The paper consist of two sections —-40 objective & 10 true false questions. The cut-off as told by them 30% but they may have increase this limit. in my college only 8 out of 21 cleared the paper(for ECE branch)

Part I—Objective questions (40 with 1.5 marks each) with 50% -ve marking.

1. Numerical problem based on modulation index fc, fm………. (formula based direct queston).

2. Poles & zeroes are at .01,1,20,100…… find phase margin/angle at f=50Hz. ans -90(By drawing bode plot)

3. In n-type enhancement mode MOSFET drain current———– options are- increase/decrease with inc/dec in drain/gate voltage. ans(d)

4. Gain of an directional antenna 6db P=1mw find transmitted power………(use Ptr= G * P.)

5. Multiplication of two nos 10101010 & 10010011 in 2’s complement form..

6. A ckt is given suppplied with 15v with a series of resistance of 1k and a parallel combination of 12V zener diode and 2k resistance. FInd current through 2k resistance.
Ans: 6mA

7.A MP has 16 line data bus & 12 line addr bus find memory range……….Ans..4K(4*1024bytes)

8.Divide by 12 counter require minimum ….. no of flip flops Ans. 4

9.Storage time in p-n junction.

10.Succesive approx. use in …. Ans ADC(analog to digital)

11.Pre-emphasis require in ……… low freq/high freq signal.

12.Handshake in MP ……….. Ans to communicate with slower peripherals.

13. Binary equivalent of 0.0625 Ans. 0.0001

14.Which code is self complement of itself

15.Excess three code of an given binary no.

16.When we add 6 in BCD operations……. Ans. if result exceed valid BCD nos.

17.Shottky diode has better switching capability because it switch between…….

18.Figure of Merit is same as……

19.Swithcing in diode happens when….

20.During forward bias majority charge conc. in depletion layers inc/decrease…..

21.Channel capacity depend on……. Ans. Usable frequency or bandwidth

22.A 2kHz signal is passed through an Low pass filter having cut-off freq 800Hz o/p will be

23. Carrier amplitude 1v, peak to peak message signal 3mv find modulation index.

24.A 12V signal is quantized into two V/14 & 6 equal V/7 determine quantization error.


Part II True & false…...(10 1 mark each) with 50% -ve marking

1.Power dissipation in ECL is minimum………. False

2.Fourier Transform of a symmetric conjugate function is always real …. True

3.Divide by 12 counter requires a minimum of 4 flip flops…….True

4.Boron can be use as impurity to analyse base of a npn transistor…….True


Other Question Placement Paper :

1) in analog question based on zener diode

2) coupling capacitors and bypass capacitors affect

3) 1,8,27,64,125, ……….,…….
which among the following will not come in the series
a.1000, b.729 c.259

4) which of the following game uses bulley
a.football
b.cricket
c.goalf..
d.hockey

5) a zener diode works on the principle of

6)under the high electric field,in a semiconductor with increasing electric field

7)in an 8085,microprocessor system with memory mapped I/O

8)built-in potential in a p-n jn.-

9)the breakdown voltage of a transitor with its base open is BV(ceo) and that with emitter open BV(cbo) then

10) ques based on half adder

11) based on flip flop

12) block diagram reduction

13) to find max overshoot (2 ques based on it)

Solved Test Paper : 2010

BEL General Aptitude Solved Test Paper : 2010

1. In which of the following movements ‘Vande Mataram’ was adotped for the first time as a slogan for agitation?
(A) Revolt of 1857
(B) Partition of Bengal in 1905
(C) Non-cooperation Movement in 1922
(D) Quit India Movement in 1942

2. Who warned Gandhiji not to encourage fanaticism of Muslim religious leaders and their followers?
(A) Agha Khan
(B) AjmaI Khan
(C) Hasan Imam
(D) Mohammad Ali Jinnah

3. Which one of the following is not correct about the Congress Session.of Lucknow, 1916?
(A) Ambika Charan Majumdar was not the president of this session
(B) In this session the reunion between the liberal and the extremist was
established
(C) Mahatma was apprised the problems of the peasants Champaran for the
first time
(D) None of the above

4. Kanpur conspiracy case was against the leaders of?
(A) Khilafat Movement
(B) Non-cooperation Movement
(C) Communist Movement
(D) Revolutionary Movement

5. In India “Currency Notes issue system” is based on?
(A) Minimum reserve system
(B) Proportional reserve system
(C) Fixed exchange rate system
(D) Full convertibility system

6. ‘Disguised’ unemployment means?
(A) Persons with no jobs
(B) Unemployment among house wives
(C) Unemployment among per sons above 60 years pf age
(D) Employment of more persons in a job which lesser number of persons
can perform

7. Which of the following statements are true about the income tax in India?
1. It is a progressive tax,
2. It is a direct tax.
3. It is collected by the Government.
4. It is a proportional tax Select the correct answer from the code given
below
Codes:
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1,2and3only
(D) 2, 3 and 4 only

8. ‘SIDBI’ has been established to-
(A) Finance small scale industries
(B) Finance cottage industries
(C) Finance large scale industries
(D) Finance public sector under takings

9. Gangubai Hangal, who died a few months ago, was a?
(A) Classical singer
(B) Dancer
(C) Painter
(D) Sitar player

10. Deep Joshi has recently been given Raman Magsaysay Award in the category of?
(A) Government service
(B) Public service
(C) Community leadership
(D) Emergent leadership

11. The missing number in the following series: 5,10,13,26,29, 58, 61,…Is?
(A) 122
(C) 128
(B) 125
(D) 131

12. If 2 jeans and 3 shirts cost Rs. 4,000 and jeans and 2 shirts cost Rs. 3,500, how much does a jeans cost?
(A) Rs. 1,500
(B) Rs 1,000
(C) Rs. 500
(D) Rs. 2,000

13. Which one of the following expresses error in computer data?
(A) chip
(B) byte
(C) bug
(D) bit

14.Assertion (A) Graphite is a good lubricant. Reason (R) Graphite is good conductor of electricity. Select the correct answer from the codes given below Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (A) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (A) are true but (H) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (A) is true

15. Acid rain is caused by pollution ot environment by?
(A) Carbon dioxide and Nitrogen
(B) Carbon monoxide and Carbon dioxide
(C) Ozone and Carbon dioxide
(D) Nitrous oxide and Sulphur dioxide

16.Which one of the following is called the ‘metal of future’?
(A) Copper
(B) Iron
(C) Titanium
(D) Aluminum

17. The earliest coins of India were made of ?
(A) Copper
(B) Gold
(C) Lead
(D) Silver

18. The Mongols appeared for the first time on the banks of Indus during the reign of?
(A) Balban
(B) Iltutrnish
(C) Qutubuddin Aibak
(D) Razia

19. The first woman ruler of medieval India was?
(A) Chand Bibi
(B) Durgavati
(C) Noorjahan
(D) Razia

20. The Moplah Rebellion (1921) took place in?
(A) Malabar
(B) Marathawada
(C) Telengana
(D) Vidarbha

21. Which part of the Constitutions of India has been described as the: Soul of the Constitution ?
(A) Directive principles of State policy
(B) Fundamental rights
(C) Preamble
(D) Right to constitutional remedies

22. The first state to implement the Panchayati Raj System in India was?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Gujarat
(D) Karnataka

23. Who has the right to seek advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on any question of law?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Any High Court
(D) All of the above

24. Consider the following statements about the Governor of a State
1. He is appointed by the President.
2. He holds office at the pleasure of the President.
3. The executive power of the: State vests in him.
4. Normally he holds office for five years.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below
(A) l and 2
(B) 1,2 and 3
(C) 1,2 and 4
(D) All the four

25. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Ahmedabad—Sabarmati
(B) Lucknow —Gomti
(C) Bhubaneshwar—Mahanadi
(D) Ujjain-Shipra

26.Dilwara Jain temple is situated at?
(A) Palitana
(B) Mount Abu
(C) Sonagiri
(D) Girinarji

27. Which one of the following is the biggest shipping canal in the world?
(A) Kiel Canal
(B) Panama Canal
(C) Soo Canal
(D) Suez Canal

28. Where was the battle of Plassey fought?
(A) Karnal
(B) Haldighati
(C) Mysore
(D) Bengal

29. Who was the first Vice-President of India?
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) C. V. Raman
(D) Jawahar Lal Nehru

30. What was the reason behind the mutiny of 1857?
(A) Cartridge containing fat
(B) Frustration in soldiers
(C) Failure of British Government
(D) Administrative research

31. Which of the following is UHF?
(A) 40MHz
(C) 400 KHz
(B) 400 MHz
(D) 40 KHz

32. Mass of a particle is m and its momentum is p. Its kinetic energy will be?
(A) mp
(B) ppm
(C) pp/m
(D) pp/2m

33. SI . unit of power is ‘watt. It is equivalent to which of the following?
(A) Kgms-2
(B)Kgm-2s-2
(C) Kgm-2s-3
(D) None of these

34. Who among the following cricketers scored the highest runs?
(A) Brien Lara
(B) Sanat Jaysurya
(C) Sachin Tendulkar
(D) Virendra Sehwag

35. Which is the oldest Veda?
(A) Samveda
(B) Rigveda
(C) Yajurveda
(D) Atharvaveda

36. Who was the founder of Pakistan ?
(A) Mohammad Ali Jinna
(B) Liyaquat AIi Khan
(C) Gaffar Khan
(D) Benazir Bhutto

37. Who invented television?
(A)J. L. Baird
(B) Lawrance -
(C) Frederick Trechithic
(D) King Gillette

38. Who invented wireless?
(A)Marconi
(B)Charles Caterin
(C)George Cayley
(D)Zenobe Gramme

39. Which of the following was the battle strategy of Shivaji against Mughals?
(A) Alert army
(B) Large army
(C) Political monopoly
(D) Guerilla warfare

40. Find out the next term of the series?
1,2,4,7,11,………
(A)16
(B) 12
(C) 9
(D) 4

41. Which of the following cities is termed as the Pink city?
(A) Jaipur
(B) Jodhpur
(C) Ajrner
(D) Delhi

42. Who wrote the Meghdoot?*
(A) Kalidas
(B) Vatsyayan
(C) Chanakya
(D) Premchand

43. Which of the following is a creation of Maithili-Sharan Gupta?
(A)Saket
(B) Urvashi
(C) Prempachisi
(D) Gatha

44. Which is the longest railway line of the world?
(A) Trans-Siberian
(B) Trans-Canadian
(C) Orient Railway line
(D) Railway line from London to Paris

45. Which of the following states has the highest number of voters?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Bihar
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Gujarat

ANSWERS
1 B 2 B 3 A 4 C 5 A 6 D 7 B 8 A 9 A 10 C 11 A 12 C 13 C 14 B 15 D 16 C 17 A
18 B 19 D 20 A 21 D 22 B 23 B 24 D 25 C 26 B 27 D 28 D 29 A 30 B 31 B 32 D
33 C 34 C 35 B 36 A 37 A 38 A 39 D 40 A 41 A 42 A 43 A 44 A 45 A .

BEL PE

After hunting for hours I found that there is no direct link or webpage from where one can obtain the required information for BEL PROBATIONARY ENGINEER (PE).

Syllabus and previous years questions were difficult to find.

I am posting here whatever i could find on net.
Just to decrease your efforts in searching for it and save time.

All the best.

_____________________________________________________________

Details of Advertisement for Probationary Engineers »»

Job Title	:	PROBATIONARY ENGINEER (PE)
Location	:	Across India

Requirements »»

For PROBATIONARY ENGINEER, GEN / OBC candidates with first class in B.E / B.Tech / B.Sc Engineering Graduate from AICTE approved Colleges in Electronics / Electronics and Communication / Electronics & Telecommunication / Communication / Telecommunication / Mechanical / Computer Science / Computer Science and Engineering. Candidates with first class in AMIE / GIETE, in the above disciplines are also eligible to apply. SC/ST/PWD candidates with pass class in the above degree/disciplines are eligible to apply.
Candidates currently studying in the final semester / final year of BE / B.Tech / B.Sc engineering and who will be taking their final semester/final year exams by June/July 2011 are also eligible to apply.
The maximum age limit for General candidates is 25 years of age as on 01.04.2011 for all posts.
Special dispensation allowed for Other Backward Class (OBC), Scheduled Caste (SC), Scheduled Tribe (ST), Physically handicapped person (PWD), Ex-Serviceman (XSM), Kashmiri Migrant (KM). Please refer to the Norms for the same. . Please Click here to refer the Norms for the same.
There are 150 vacancies for the above position (80 Electronics, 30 Mechanical, 40 Computer Science).
The above openings are for the following locations: Bangalore (Karnataka), Ghaziabad (UP), Pune (Maharashtra), Hyderabad (Andhra Pradesh), Chennai (Tamil Nadu), Machilipatnam (Andhra Pradesh) Panchkula (Haryana), Kotdwara (Uttaranchal) Navi Mumbai (Maharashtra) and other offices of BEL
Candidates are required to note down and keep a record of the auto generated Application Number that will appear after the online application format has been filled in correctly and submitted. This Number will be required for accessing, downloading and printing the written test call letter that will be placed on the BEL website on 10.06.2011 at 1400 hours.(tentative)
Only Indian Nationals need apply.
Last date for applying online is 10.05.2011.

Please Note:

1. Candidates are advised to go through the Norms in detail. Click here to see the Norms.
2. Candidates belonging to GEN/OBC category are required to make a Demand Draft for Rs.500/- and SC/ST/PWD candidates are required to make a DD for Rs. 200/- drawn preferably on State Bank of India, payable at SBI, New Delhi, in favour of BHARAT ELECTRONICS LIMITED. The DD Number and MICR Number must be entered before you can proceed further..
3. Candidates are required to enter all information correctly in the on-line application form and verify the same before submission, as changes shall not be permitted after submission of the application form.

Please go through the norms so that you are prepared with the required details before applying.

___________________________________________________________________

The test consists of 30 questions based on aptitude. Apart from this there is a passage consisting of 3 questions.
There are data interpretation questions, logical reasoning questions and questions on general knowledge.


The math questions are generally asked from topics like compound interest and height and distance.
These questions can be really tricky.


The technical part consists of questions which aim to test the fundamental knowledge you have in subjects
like solid state and electronics. Questions are there from Fourier transform, electrical, circuit theory,
network theorems, filters, resistors connections etc.


There can be questions from control systems. Digital signal processing forms a major portion from where
questions generally come. Some questions are from microprocessors.

________________________________________________________________

Probationary Engineer position is the same as the position of Probationary Officer and Government organizations in Indian normally appoint candidates with the position name as Probationary Officer, even though they appoint engineers for this position. However, some organizations might issue job notification inviting fresh engineering graduates for the position of Probationary Engineer.

The pay scale for this position in government organizations in India is Rs. 16400-40500. In addition, these candidates will also get other allowances like medical reimbursement, conveyance allowance, House Rent Allowance, Dearness Allowance, etc…

Recent job notification for the position of Probationary Engineer:

As mentioned earlier, government organizations recruit candidates with this position name very rarely and recently, Bharat Electronics Limited is the only public sector organization that called for applications from eligible candidates for the position of Probationary Engineer.

Age requirement for the position of Probationary Engineer:

Normally, the maximum age limit of the candidates applying for the position of Probationary Engineer is 25 years for general category candidates and this upper age is relaxable up to 3 years for OBC candidates and 5 years for SC/ST candidates.

Educational Qualification:

As the name of the position implies, candidates must be graduates in the field of Engineering from an institution approved by the All India Council for Technical Education with not less than 60% of aggregate marks. As far as BEL is concerned, engineering graduates from the following branches were invited to apply:

• Computer Science & Engineering

• Mechanical

• Telecommunication

• Communication

• Electronics & Telecommunication

• Electronics & Communication

• Electronics

Even candidates in the final year of their degree course are eligible to apply for the position of Probationary Engineer in Government organizations.

Selection Process:

Normally, selection of candidates for the position of Probationary Engineer is done by Government organizations based on their performance in the written test, which follows interview.

What is the syllabus for the written test?

Normally, written test conducted for recruitment of candidates for the position of Probationary Engineer, will have objective type questions from fundamental engineering subject and questions from respective specialization/discipline of the candidates and general aptitude.

Growth prospects of candidates appointed for the position of Probationary Engineer:

Normally, candidates appointed for any probationary position, will have to work for some period as trainee and this period is called as probationary period. Like probationary officer position, candidates appointed for the position of Probationary Engineer will also have to work for some period as probationary period and during this period, the candidates will be given training. This training will be of great use to the candidates to get promotion to further positions in the organization.

Read more here: http://entrance-exam.net/pay-scale-for-probationary-engineer-in-government-jobs/#ixzz1NeFLeqmx

for more....
PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS: click


Please check " Blog archive" on this page for more details and updates. ( at right corner from top)